Wednesday, July 13, 2011
Why does Philippians 2;6 contradict the claim that Jesus was equal with God?
There is absolutely no contradiction whatsoever. Watch this! If Jesus is not God, why would this verse have to deny it? What is the point? If the subject matter is about God, then the ONLY reason is to emphasize the whole point that God did indeed lower Himself. And the rest of that chapter does indeed emphasize that point. Now since the subject matter of that verse is about God, this passage, also, has given occasion to much discussion. Prof. Stuart renders it: "did not regard his equality with God as an object of solicitous desire;" that is, that though he was of a divine nature or condition, he did not eagerly seek to retain his equality with God, but took on him an humble condition. In other words, how does God express this humble act but by simply indicating He is not going to take advantage of being God by grasping it (New American Bible Revised Edition) since the whole point is humility. Why deny being God if you are not really God? Do not make the subject matter "God" in the first place since there is no point in denying it. The ONLY plausible reason for such a subject matter is for Jesus not to take advantage of it while existing in such a humble state. Also, the Douay-Rheims version verse (robbery) is still valid.
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